Saturday, March 03, 2007

George Pattison on Girard and the atonement...


George Pattison in his book A Short Course in Christian Doctrine adapts Girard's work to Christian thinking about the atonement thus:


Earlier, I looked briefly at RenĂ© Girard’s theory of sacrifice. …Scapegoating works in the sense that it unifies society (“One man must die for the people”!), but it works only at the cost of a massive collective self-deception, a refusal of the self-knowledge that we are each complicit in and responsible for the violence that the act of scapegoating seeks to purge. Seeing Jesus as the scapegoat who bears our sins and thus takes away the sin of the world is, according to Girard, completely to miss the point of what we actually find in the Gospels. For what we see there is the historically unique witness to the profound injustice of the scapegoat phenomenon and, for the first time in history, a victim who refuses to accept the justice of his death, who, in effect, proclaims that one man should not die for the people. For if each person is, in themselves, a reflection of the image and likeness of God and called to fellowship in the divine life, then no act of killing can be “God’s will”. [Thus the passion narrative] offers a decisive insight into the systemic, structural injustice of the human condition and, through this self-knowledge, demystifies and frees us from the otherwise universal mechanisms of mimetic desire and their inevitable violent outcome. The cross, as witnessed in the Gospels, does set us free. But it does not do so because it is the supreme sacrifice. Rather, it does so because it exposes sacrifice for what it is: murder. If we understand this, then that path is for evermore closed and we are set on the new path of mutual responsibility and care. Where the Church persists in interpreting the death of Jesus in sacrificial terms, however, we may suspect that the lesson has not yet been learned. It is salutary to reflect that the Victorians’ preoccupation with sacrifice and atonement provided an all too easy context for the mystification of what happened in the First World War as a Christ-like sacrifice. Only too late did Europe realize that this was…just plain slaughter.

My question is: has there ever been a time when the church did not interpret the death of Jesus in sacrificial terms - let alone in the explicit and persistent language of the NT itself? The language of 'as witnessed in the Gospels' can only be true on a very bad reading of them. Can we retain some of the insight about the cross - that it puts an end to sacrifice and exposes the death of Jesus as a vile murder of an innocent man - and yet still say as orthodox Christians always have, that it was a sacrifice, supremely so?

7 comments:

Sam Charles Norton said...

I'm a big fan of Girard; for an extended treatment of the atonement from a Girardian perspective have a look at James Alison's work, especially 'on being liked'.

Having said that, I think there is still material here that is worth probing further.

Are you familiar with Margaret Barker's work? She gives what seems to be a very plausible account of the sacrifical language as rooted in the liturgy of the first temple, with direct application to atonement theory.

Sam Charles Norton said...

Sorry, meant to add, in answer to your explicit question, 'it depends what you think 'sacrifice' refers to' - it doesn't necessitate penal substitution, for example. Apparently the Hebrew word for sacrifice (kopher) originally meant thanksgiving....

michael jensen said...

Well, I haven't read Margaret Baker: sounds interesting.

You are right of course that OT language about sacrifices is extremely variegated: there are ephahs of grain, and thank offerings, and scapegoats, and purificatory rights and so on.

However...it only doesn't necessitate penal substitution if you read it very selectively I think! Believe me, I have tried to read it that way...

Anonymous said...

One of the issues regarding the scapegoating aspect of the cross that I think needs explaining is that in the OT there is no hint - that is as far as I can see any way;)of God pouring out his wrath on the beast, being angry with it etc, yet it is taught this is what God did when he looked upon Christ as the sacrificial scapegoat.

Anonymous said...

Trust my luck that having just taken the sacrificial language as a given, in a discussion a few threads down (on PSA), I find it in question in this latest post.

Mary Midgley likes the metaphor of plumbing to describe the work of philosophy. The argument made by Pattison seems to me in need of a plumber. It's clear enough (and fair enough) that he wants to get to a certain point, but the wrong pipes have been joined up to get there...

Buck Eschaton said...

Margaret Barker, mentioned above, has noticed something extremely important. In the Day of Atonement ritual the goat wasn't "for" the Lord, but "was" the Lord. The other goat wasn't "for" Azazel, but "was" Azazel. Christ represented both goats. Very complex symbolism. The goat which was the Lord (Yahweh) was the a substitute for the High Priest who became the Lord and Son of God when he took the name.
In Isaiah 53, using an insight from Barker, Yahweh was the Son of God. Jesus was Yahweh incarnate. So in effect PSA is actually saying that Jesus laid his wrath on himself.
There is God the Father who is El Elyon, Jesus who is Yahweh, and then the holy spirit making the trinity.
PSA has some serious issues.

michael jensen said...

Well no it doesn't - it is when it is contrued in this trinitarian way that it begins to make sense.

Besides which, this reading of Barker's sounds extremely contentious!