But it isn't the whole story.
The work of Bible translation was well established by the time KJV came along. The 1559 BCP was in use when James ascended.
How was the Bible used?
- Lectionary required daily readings.
- Psalms in a monthly cycle. Other Psalms and canticles. Used in other services.
- Lessons related to the occasion.
- Single verse related to a theme. - Sentences
- Prayers themselves - from Tyndale, or from Vulgate.
- influence of biblical passages - documented in mid-19th cent
Coverdale (1539).
Bishop's Bible (1568, auth. 1571) - used for lectionary readings alone.
Until 1662, the Biblical material was not KJV.
When the 1662 was published - most extracts were taken from the KJV. But some not: Psalms, 10 C's, sentences, the grace and the Lord's Prayer.
Epistle and Gospel readings and other extracts were from the KJV. Psalter and Morning Prayer used different versions of the same Psalm.
Surely, this change was very noticeable.
So: to the nitty-gritty of these changes.
What about when you had Luke 1 and 2 read in KJV and then in Great Bible in the BCP?
It is difficult to judge whether it sounded deliberately archaic or not. And yet the change for readers and hearers must have been quite intense.
Liturgically the KJV did not sweep all before it. There's one thing to learn - to have the liturgy so thoroughly imbued with the Bible must be to the benefit of all!
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